A buyer raised an over-asking bid on a high-value property, including every furnishing and demanding a quick closing, yet no deposit was received. Could this be a tactic to waste time or set up further personal data scamming?
I’m intrigued by the missing deposit tactic. Could it be a deliberate move to bypass standard checks? Maybe they are stalling for a more sophisticated scheme later. What do you think might be the next step in this strategy?
i reckon the lack of deposit might be a way to recagther personal info later, or to build fake trust in order to later flip the terms on the seller. seems sketchy to me.
In similar situations I have noticed dishonesty concealed behind unconventional offers. It seems that the absence of a deposit is not an oversight but rather a calculated move to gain leverage over the seller. From my experience, such tactics are often used to later facilitate personal data theft or trigger fraudulent activities by bypassing initial security checks. This situation emphasizes the importance of verifying all parties involved and confirming that every aspect of the deal adheres to standard protocols before proceeding further.